Then I am stuck. I think the provided answer contains an error. But even if they are right, why does this last step equal f(x,y) + g(y) ???

  • LGTM@discuss.tchncs.de
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    2 days ago

    What do you want to learn PDEs for? It’s not my strong point, but I’ve heard high praise for Partial Differential Equations by Stanley J. Farlow. I found it useful in my undergrad, else I think I could have died in analytical mechanics

  • blind3rdeye@lemm.ee
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    2 months ago

    I think they’re just being very sloppy with their definitions of the arbitrary functions f and g. In that if you integrate some arbitrary function, then you get some other arbitrary function - and they just used the same name. That’s my best guess for what they’re doing.

    Actually, there’s a whole lot about that ‘answer’ that I don’t like. I assume g(x) becoming g(y) is just a mistake. The implicit redefinition of the functions is bogus. And even if they were given new letters, I don’t like that the integration constants / functions are introduced before the integral is done. Like, I guess they are a result of integrating the LHS - but then we’re implicitly assuming that the other integral will give a constant of zero… To me that doesn’t look like good technique. But then again, maybe I’ve misunderstood the whole thing!

    • LGTM@discuss.tchncs.de
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      2 days ago

      Absolutely agree, lowk a programmer must’ve done it else I don’t think I’ve met a mathmematician (or maybe, not crazy enough ones) that ever preferred redefining variables (esp in pedagogical material!!!)