glibg10b@lemmy.ml to Technology@lemmy.worldEnglish · 4 months agoThis was the first result on Googlelemmy.mlimagemessage-square239fedilinkarrow-up1829arrow-down134
arrow-up1795arrow-down1imageThis was the first result on Googlelemmy.mlglibg10b@lemmy.ml to Technology@lemmy.worldEnglish · 4 months agomessage-square239fedilink
minus-squaredrathvedro@lemm.eelinkfedilinkEnglisharrow-up1·4 months agoIt would be. By ohm’s law, I=V/R and R=V/I, so if V is fixed as V=1, then I=1/R, R=1/I, so it’s is effectively the same thing, just measured in reverse.
It would be. By ohm’s law, I=V/R and R=V/I, so if V is fixed as V=1, then I=1/R, R=1/I, so it’s is effectively the same thing, just measured in reverse.