First off there are two passages in the O.T. that directly prescribe the death penalty for male homosexuality, not one like you said.
Second neither one of which contain the Hebrew word for “boy”. Both use the words to describe a man.
Third even if they somehow meant to write boy but didn’t in context it would still work out to mean man.
Fourth the rest of the bible is completely consistent on this which is almost shocking given that it is consistent on so little. From Leviticus all the way to Paul, we got about a thousand years of different writers all saying the same thing on this one issue.
Fifth even texts that didn’t make it it in the Bible (at least directly) like Enoth still go after it.
Sixth the oldest commentaries all agree what the rules were about this.
The abhramic faiths are on the text level homophobic. No amount of apologetics, or crappy translations, or recontextual work will change what they contain. When people or religions tell you what they are about believe them. And stop following these shit tier religions.
I am betting the are misremembering a thing that was making the rounds claiming that Paul meant in one of his letters Romans chapter 1.
It isn’t correct because
A. He had a perfectly good Greek word for being a pedo and didn’t use it
B. The passage is clear that it was consensual act he was condemning
C. Who cares? We have two other letters (one granted is a forgery) where it is condemned
Why can’t people just accept that these people were homophobic? They were. If you are from an Abrahamic faith your skydaddy is a homophobic piece of shit and so we’re the people who claim to speak for him. Stop praying to it.
Technically the meaning behind the word sodomy was never recorded consistently through the ages so you can basically say it’s whatever you want and therefor the bible is against it. For example, maybe Felatio is Sodomy. Maybe non-metaphorically eating corndogs is Sodomy. Or both or neither.
The only thing we can say for sure is that daughters getting their father drunk and raping him to get pregnant probably didn’t happen in Sodom. It happened directly after by the only “good” people allowed to survive.
Then by your argument, the bible contains no English words because it was written in hebrew and therefore any quotes from the bible not made directly in hebrew are false. Sodomy is directly the same in meaning as the Sin of Sodom as it has evolved from exactly that phrase and has kept it’s meaning consistently.
I don’t know what you want from me. You mention sodomy in context of the bible and I pointed out that word isn’t in it. It also isn’t in it in Hebrew. Yes there is a passage that refers to the sins of Sodom but not sodomy. If you know Biblical Hebrew it would be easier to explain. Basically the difference between saying X is tall and saying X-like as a means of saying tall. One is a property of something and the other that something has that property so much it is basically a way of saying that property.
Not sure why this matters. Even if you are a believer you don’t have to go by some vague gestures of Ezekiel. You want to be homophobic, there are better passages to argue your disgusting point
BISEXUAL THREESOMES are NOT against the Bible! Only Gay People are!
The original translation of “men are prohibited to lay down with man” is more akin to “men are prohibited from laying down with boys”
So the only real verse in the Bible that mentions homosexuality is actually telling people to not be pedos
angry Catholic priest noises
No.
First off there are two passages in the O.T. that directly prescribe the death penalty for male homosexuality, not one like you said.
Second neither one of which contain the Hebrew word for “boy”. Both use the words to describe a man.
Third even if they somehow meant to write boy but didn’t in context it would still work out to mean man.
Fourth the rest of the bible is completely consistent on this which is almost shocking given that it is consistent on so little. From Leviticus all the way to Paul, we got about a thousand years of different writers all saying the same thing on this one issue.
Fifth even texts that didn’t make it it in the Bible (at least directly) like Enoth still go after it.
Sixth the oldest commentaries all agree what the rules were about this.
The abhramic faiths are on the text level homophobic. No amount of apologetics, or crappy translations, or recontextual work will change what they contain. When people or religions tell you what they are about believe them. And stop following these shit tier religions.
What is your source for this? Sounds like something my religious grandma drops to justify all of the bad in that book.
I am betting the are misremembering a thing that was making the rounds claiming that Paul meant in one of his letters Romans chapter 1.
It isn’t correct because
A. He had a perfectly good Greek word for being a pedo and didn’t use it
B. The passage is clear that it was consensual act he was condemning
C. Who cares? We have two other letters (one granted is a forgery) where it is condemned
Why can’t people just accept that these people were homophobic? They were. If you are from an Abrahamic faith your skydaddy is a homophobic piece of shit and so we’re the people who claim to speak for him. Stop praying to it.
Not really sure about that
https://www.openbible.info/topics/homosexuality
Technically the meaning behind the word sodomy was never recorded consistently through the ages so you can basically say it’s whatever you want and therefor the bible is against it. For example, maybe Felatio is Sodomy. Maybe non-metaphorically eating corndogs is Sodomy. Or both or neither.
The only thing we can say for sure is that daughters getting their father drunk and raping him to get pregnant probably didn’t happen in Sodom. It happened directly after by the only “good” people allowed to survive.
That’s your reward for being good! You get to rape your dad and have his kid!
Ok but that word isn’t in the Bible.
It evolved from peccatum Sodomiticum which is latin for the Sin of Sodom.
Sure. The Bible was written in Greek and Hebrew with some loan words from Aramaic and like 9 words or so, not related to this, from Latin.
You’re now arguing that the bible in Hebrew doesn’t mention sinning taking place in Sodom?
No. I am pointing out the word Sodomy isn’t in there.
Then by your argument, the bible contains no English words because it was written in hebrew and therefore any quotes from the bible not made directly in hebrew are false. Sodomy is directly the same in meaning as the Sin of Sodom as it has evolved from exactly that phrase and has kept it’s meaning consistently.
I don’t know what you want from me. You mention sodomy in context of the bible and I pointed out that word isn’t in it. It also isn’t in it in Hebrew. Yes there is a passage that refers to the sins of Sodom but not sodomy. If you know Biblical Hebrew it would be easier to explain. Basically the difference between saying X is tall and saying X-like as a means of saying tall. One is a property of something and the other that something has that property so much it is basically a way of saying that property.
Not sure why this matters. Even if you are a believer you don’t have to go by some vague gestures of Ezekiel. You want to be homophobic, there are better passages to argue your disgusting point
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If only this would happen to Christianity.