cross-posted from: https://lemmy.crimedad.work/post/12162

Why? Because apparently they need some more incentive to keep units occupied. Also, even though a property might be vacant, there’s still imputed rental income there. Its owner is just receiving it in the form of enjoying the unit for himself instead of receiving an actual rent check from a tenant. That imputed rent ought to be taxed like any other income.

  • blueskycorporation@lemmy.world
    link
    fedilink
    English
    arrow-up
    2
    ·
    11 months ago

    Once the property is fully depreciated, the trick is to do a 1031 exchange to buy a new one, and then you can depreciate the new one.