Does the fact capitalism didn’t exist in certain periods of human history mean it literally could not exist in the future? Communism is a classless, stateless, moneyless society, fufilling the principle, “From each according to their ability, to each according to their need.” The argument is that communism will be achieved through an incredibly productive socialist economy, the problem with capitalism as a productive mode is that its internal contradictions make communism unreachable.
Also, you seem to think that the only two options for a civilization are capitalism or communism, which just shows a complete ignorance of history, and possibly economics.
Very kind comment. Definitionally, communism describes a stage of civilizational development, what study do I need to prove that? That’s literally what the word means.
Capitalism is a mode of production. The next mode of production after capitalism will be socialism.
Definitionally according to whom? Who defined it? What were their qualifications? Based on what evidence?
I cannot think of a single great civilization from history that reached communism of as a stage of development before the 20th century. Please name one or two. If it is a stage of civilizational development, you should be able to demonstrate that.
I cannot think of a single great civilization from history that reached communism of as a stage of development before the 20th century. Please name one or two. If it is a stage of civilizational development, you should be able to demonstrate that.
Again, does the fact there were times in human history before capitalism, with no knowledge or experience of capitalism, somehow make capitalism not a thing? Can something be defined only after it is seen?
The word communism, literally means, a classless, stateless, moneyless society, that fulfills the principle “from each according to their ability to each according to their need”. That’s what the word means, do you dispute this definition?
The word communism, literally means, a classless, stateless, moneyless society, that fulfills the principle “from each according to their ability to each according to their need”. That’s what the word means, do you dispute this definition?
And what anthropological studies are you basic this conclusion on?
If it’s a stage of civilizational development, you should be able to find evidence.
Does the fact capitalism didn’t exist in certain periods of human history mean it literally could not exist in the future? Communism is a classless, stateless, moneyless society, fufilling the principle, “From each according to their ability, to each according to their need.” The argument is that communism will be achieved through an incredibly productive socialist economy, the problem with capitalism as a productive mode is that its internal contradictions make communism unreachable.
So no studies and no evidence.
Also, you seem to think that the only two options for a civilization are capitalism or communism, which just shows a complete ignorance of history, and possibly economics.
Very kind comment. Definitionally, communism describes a stage of civilizational development, what study do I need to prove that? That’s literally what the word means.
Capitalism is a mode of production. The next mode of production after capitalism will be socialism.
Definitionally according to whom? Who defined it? What were their qualifications? Based on what evidence?
I cannot think of a single great civilization from history that reached communism of as a stage of development before the 20th century. Please name one or two. If it is a stage of civilizational development, you should be able to demonstrate that.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Communism#History
Again, does the fact there were times in human history before capitalism, with no knowledge or experience of capitalism, somehow make capitalism not a thing? Can something be defined only after it is seen?
The word communism, literally means, a classless, stateless, moneyless society, that fulfills the principle “from each according to their ability to each according to their need”. That’s what the word means, do you dispute this definition?
So not based on any sort of science or history, or evidence that this has ever happened in all of human history.
This is what is known as “wishful thinking.”
The word communism, literally means, a classless, stateless, moneyless society, that fulfills the principle “from each according to their ability to each according to their need”. That’s what the word means, do you dispute this definition?
I dispute that it has ever happened or that there is any evidence that it ever will happen.
Not unless you are talking about tiny bands of hunter-gatherers.